1. What type of transactions must members disclose to the Board of Trustees?

2. Which practice is considered self-dealing?

3. What must members not indulge in while managing mutual fund schemes?

4. Which of the following practices is strictly prohibited in the mutual fund industry?

5. What is the obligation of members regarding the handling of investor complaints?

6. In terms of scheme management, what must members ensure?

7. What must members do if they intend to change the fundamental attributes of a scheme?

8. What must members maintain for compliance with the AMFI Code?

9. What is expected from members regarding competition in the mutual fund market?

10. How should members manage conflicts of interest?

11. What is a requirement regarding the segregation of accounts in mutual funds?

12. What should members provide to investors before any investment decision is made?

13. What is a consequence of violating the AMFI Code of Ethics?

14. What type of communication must members avoid making to investors?

15. What is essential for members when establishing internal controls for compliance?

16. What is the primary interest that mutual fund schemes should serve?

17. Trustees and asset management companies must disseminate information in:

18. Excessive concentration of business should be avoided with:

19. What is the standard of integrity required for trustees and asset management companies?

20. A scheme’s assets and liabilities must be:

21. Trustees and asset management companies should make investment decisions:

22. What kind of practices should be avoided in selling or marketing schemes?

23. AMFI stands for:

24. What type of disclosures are required by trustees and asset management companies?

25. Who is considered a “Significant Unitholder”?

26. MFDs should exercise which kind of duty?

27. What should MFDs avoid when recommending schemes?

28. When are MFDs required to disclose conflicts of interest?

29. What is discouraged to prevent misleading practices?

30. What should be conveyed in clear terms to investors?

31. What is prohibited for employees and officers of asset management companies?

32. How often should MFDs report compliance to trustees?

33. Which of the following is NOT a duty of MFDs?

34. What does SEBI stand for?

35. What should MFDs assess before marketing a mutual fund scheme?

36. What must MFDs maintain in handling investor information?

37. Who should be informed of the risk factors associated with any scheme?

38. What is strictly avoided to ensure fair treatment of all investors?

39. How are “fundamental investment policies” defined?

40. Under what condition may trustees make changes to a scheme’s fundamental attributes?

41. MFDs are prohibited from:

42. What constitutes an unethical practice for MFDs?

43. How should MFDs treat the information obtained from AMCs and investors?

44. MFDs should avoid __________ to prevent misleading the investor.

45. MFDs are advised to:

46. What does “AMFI” stand for?

47. A “Significant Unit Holder” is defined as an entity holding what percentage or more of the total corpus of a scheme?

48. What should MFDs avoid when recommending a mutual fund scheme to investors?

49. What does MFD stand for?

50. Which term is used to describe the core investment attributes of a mutual fund scheme?

51. MFDs are prohibited from engaging in which of the following?

52. According to the code, what is the primary duty of a Mutual Fund Distributor (MFD)?

53. What is required if an MFD encounters a conflict of interest?

54. Which document provides essential information on mutual fund schemes and is crucial for MFDs to understand?

55. What should be displayed on the MFD’s platform regarding the scheme’s commission rate?

56. The term “trustee” refers to whom in the mutual fund structure?

57. MFDs are required to maintain which type of records?

58. MFDs should prevent which practice that could lead to unnecessary investor transactions?

59. Who regulates MFD activities in India?

60. What certification is mandatory for MFDs?

61. What should MFDs include in their printed communication?

62. If an MFD is affiliated with an AMC, what must they disclose?

63. MFDs should obtain an Employee Unique Identification Number (EUIN) for what purpose?

64. When is it acceptable for MFDs to provide misleading information about a scheme?

65. Which of these is essential for MFDs to mitigate operational risks?

66. How should MFDs handle investor grievances?

67. Which guideline restricts MFDs from offering indicative returns to clients?

68. An MFD can only display their own marketing material with prior approval from whom?

69. What should an MFD’s name clearly reflect?

70. For digital transactions, MFDs should ensure their systems are secure to protect what?

71. Which of the following is NOT allowed in an MFD’s dealings?

72. MFDs should NOT use which of the following terms unless registered with SEBI as an advisor?

73. To fulfill record-keeping obligations, what must MFDs maintain?

74. An MFD cannot deal in which of these mutual fund plans?

75. Which of the following is NOT a core value MFDs should demonstrate?

76. What is a fundamental attribute of a mutual fund scheme?

77. Which of the following is NOT a scheme type?

78. What is the main objective of a growth-focused scheme?

79. What is a sectoral fund?

80. Which regulation requires notification to investors about changes in a scheme’s fundamental attributes?

81. What must investors be given if there is a change in the scheme’s fundamental attributes?

82. What is the minimum notification period before a scheme change?

83. Who is responsible for ensuring no changes to a scheme’s fundamental attributes without proper communication?

84. The performance of a scheme is benchmarked against:

85. In case of a new scheme, what performance track record is given?

86. Which return format is used for schemes in existence for more than one year?

87. What information about the fund manager must be disclosed?

88. Restrictions on scheme investments are found in:

89. For balanced schemes, which investment restrictions apply?

90. The minimum target amount in an NFO is:

91. The NFO price per unit is:

92. What happens if the minimum target amount is not collected during the NFO?

93. Which option is NOT available in an NFO?

94. What is the systematic investment plan (SIP)?

95. When must refund for rejected applications be completed?

96. The NFO listing is required on:

97. Ongoing offer price is based on:

98. Exit load is applied when:

99. What is a systematic transfer plan?

100. Which document provides detailed information on investing in a scheme?