1. If an investor failed to claim his redemption proceeds within 3 years, he can claim the proceeds at

2. After closures of the initial offer an open-ended scheme, on going sales and repurchases must start within

3. For scheme to be able to change its fundamental attributes, it must obtain the consent of

4. The prospectus of Offer Document containing the details of new scheme is first registered with the

5. The offer document issued by mutual funds does not serve the purpose of

6. The prospectus of a close-ended fund is issued

7. Fundamental attributes of scheme

8. The offer document

9. SEBI does not require the following to be included in the offer document issued by a mutual fund

10. ‘Key Information Memorandum’ is

11. The Offer document for a scheme remains valid even if

12. The offer document has to be fully revised and updated

13. An addendum giving details of material change in the offer documents should be circulated

14. Which of the following is not true for offer documents of open-ended schemes

15. All important disclosures that the mutual fund is required to make, by regulation are contained in the offer document

16. The offer document issued when an open-ended scheme is launched is valid for all times, until amended

17. The most important source of information for a prospective investor is

18. An investor need not study the offer document before investing in a scheme

19. The offer document is not a legal document

20. Initial issue expenses are charged to a scheme in the first year itself

21. Scheme-wise annual report of a mutual fund need not be

22. Mutual funds value their investments

23. Investors are totally exempt from paying any tax on the dividend income they receive from mutual funds

24. Income distributed to unit-holders by a debt fund is liable to dividend distribution tax

25. A close-ended has average weekly net assets of Rs.200 crore. As per SEBI regulations, the AMC can charge the fund with investment and advisory fee up to:

26. A passive fund manager

27. A fund manager managing an index fund

28. A growth manager looks for

29. A value manager does not look for

30. From an investor’s viewpoint, the most important is

31. Fundamental analysis involves

32. Which of the following is not considered for technical analysis

33. Quantitative analysis is more likely to be done to evaluate a particular sector or industry rather than any specific stock

34. Fundamental analysis form the basis to decide

35. Technical analysis guides the decision on

36. Which of the following is not an investment philosophy

37. When expecting a fall in market price, fund managers can reduce the loss in portfolio value by

38. Equity derivative instruments are

39. A futures contract allows one to buy or sell the underlying shares, but need not result in delivery

40. Derivatives cannot be based on market indices

41. In a mutual fund, the overall decisions on allocating money to particular industries/sector are taken by

42. Continuous tracking of the companies in which a mutual fund has invested is done by

43. Security dealers of a mutual fund

44. As per SEBI’s requirements each scheme of a mutual fund should have a dedicated fund manager

45. Debt securities bought at a discount to their face value are generally

46. In the wholesale debt market, the largest proportion of trading is seen in

47. Call or put provisions are used to modify the fixed maturity of debt securities

48. A put provision in a debt issue allows

49. Certificates of Deposits (CD’s) are issued by

50. Current yield relates interest on a security to

51. To compare bonds with different coupon rates, maturities and prices, investors would use:

52. An important indicator of expected trends in interest rates is

53. Commercial Paper is issued by corporate bodies

54. Government securities are issued through the RBI

55. Coupon of a debt security refers to

56. When interest rates rise, bond prices

57. It may not be possible to reinvest interest received at the same rate as principal. This is known as

58. The yield on Treasury Bill (T-Bill) is determined by

59. Which of the following do not apply to the term ‘maturity’ of a debt security ?

60. A bond’s rating indicates its

61. In India, a large part of debt securities pay interest on

62. Which of the following are not normally found in the portfolio of a debt fund

63. Which of the following do not represent the amount an investor of a debt security will be paid upon maturity

64. A call provision in debt issue allows the issuer to

65. If a bond cannot be sold at a price near its value, it means that investment in this bond has

66. The Indian debt market is largely wholesale in nature

67. Yield curve is also known as

68. The additional yield required to account for the risk of default by the borrower is known as

69. The largest proportion of trades done in the wholesale debt market is accounted by

70. A high credit rating does not mean

71. If 10-year government securities yields 10% and a 10 -Year fixed de posit in a company yields 12%,the yield spread is

72. The “duration” of an interest – bearing bond is

73. A bond with a coupon of 9% when interest rates for similar maturities are 11% will sell

74. Changes in foreign exchange rates have no bearing on interest rates

75. Inflation and interest rates are inversely proportional

76. Investment policies of a mutual fund are determined by

77. Which of the following measures are not taken by SEBI for protecting investors of mutual funds

78. As per SEBI norms, a fund’s investments, in the equity shares of any one company are restricted to

79. A mutual fund manager is not allowed to sell short when he expects a crash in the market

80. In a mutual fund, having many schemes, all securities bought can be held in a general account and transferred later to various schemes to attain certain profit or loss objectives

81. A mutual fund may invest in short-term deposits of scheduled commercial banks

82. Mutual funds are allowed to lend

83. In case of listed securities of group companies of the sponsor, mutual fund is not allowed to invest more than

84. A mutual fund may transfer investments from one scheme to another

85. Interest Rate Risk for an Indian debt fund can be reduced by using

86. The Interest Rate Forecasting Unit of a debt fund is generally manned by

87. AMC’s need not maintain records in support of each investment decision

88. When interest rates for similar maturities bonds are 11% bond with a 9% coupon rate will sell

89. The most suitable measure for a fund’s performance does not depend on the

90. If the NAV of an open-ended fund was Rs.16 at the beginning of the year and Rs.22 after 13 months, the annualized change in NAV is

91. Change in NAV as a measure of fund performance is more suitable for

92. The difference between NAV change and total return as measures of fund performance is

93. The most suitable measure of fund performance for all fund types is

94. The expense ratio used for measuring fund performance is an indicator of

95. The Expense Ratio as a measure of a fund’s performance is defined by a fund’s

96. While computing the Expense Ratio for a fund, brokerage commissions on the fund’s transactions are not included in the fund expenses

97. The Expense Ratio is not of utmost importance in case of

98. The expense Ratio is not affected by

99. The Income Ratio as a measure of a fund’s performance is defined by the fund’s

100. The Income Ratio is more suitable for evaluating the performance of